CH 4
1. Strategic planning is the process of moving the organization towards its ____.
a. standard c. mission
b. policy d. vision
2. Standards may be published, scrutinized, and ratified by a group, as in formal or ____ standards.
a. de formale c. de jure
b. de public d. de facto
3. The ____ is based on and directly supports the mission, vision, and direction of the organization and sets the strategic
direction, scope, and tone for all security efforts.
a. ISP c. GSP
b. EISP d. ISSP
4. ____ often function as standards or procedures to be used when configuring or maintaining systems.
a. ESSPs c. ISSPs
b. EISPs d. SysSPs
5. A security ____ is an outline of the overall information security strategy for the organization and a roadmap for planned changes to the information security environment of the organization.
a. plan c. mission
b. framework
d. blanket
6. The stated purpose of ____ is to "give recommendations for information security management for use by those who are responsible for initiating, implementing, or maintaining security in their organization."
a. NIST SP800-18 c. ISO/IEC 27002
b. RFC 2196
7. What country adopted ISO/IEC 17799?
a. United States c. Japan
b. Germany d. None of the above
8. SP 800-14, Generally Accepted Principles and Practices for Securing
Information Technology Systems, provides best practices and security principles that can direct the security team in the development of a security ____.
a. plan c. policy
b. standard d
9. Effective management includes planning and ____.
a. organizing c. controlling
b. leading d. All of the above
10. The Security Area Working Group acts as an advisory board for the protocols and areas developed and promoted by the Internet Society and the ____.
a.
IETF c. ISOC
b. ISO/IEC d. IRTF
11. The spheres of ____ are the foundation of the security framework and illustrate how information is under attack from a variety of sources.
a. defense c. security
b. assessment d. information
12. ____ controls cover security processes that are designed by strategic planners and implemented by the security administration of the organization.
a. Managerial c. Operational
b. Technical d. Informational
13. Redundancy can be implemented at a number of points throughout the security architecture, such as in ____.
a. firewalls c. access controls
b. proxy servers d. All of the above
14. ____ controls address personnel security, physical security, and the protection of production inputs and outputs.
a. Informational c. Technical
b. Operational d. Managerial
15. Security ____ are the areas of trust within which users can freely communicate.
a.
perimeters c. rectangles
b. domains d. layers
16. A buffer against outside attacks is frequently referred to as a(n) ____.
a. proxy server c. DMZ
b. no-man's land d. firewall
17. ____-based IDPSs look at patterns of network traffic and attempt to detect unusual activity based on previous baselines.
a. Firewall c. Network
b. Host d. Domain
18. The SETA program is the responsibility of the ____ and is a control measure designed to
reduce the incidences of accidental security breaches by employees.
a. CIO c. CISO
b. CISCO d. end users
19. A(n) ____ plan deals with the identification, classification, response, and recovery from an incident.
a. CM c. DR
b. BC d. IR
20. The first phase in the development of the contingency planning process is the ____.
a. BIA c. DP9
b. BRP d. IRP
21. An alert ____ is a document containing contact information for the people
to be notified in the event of an incident.
a. message c. plan
b. roster d. list
22. Incident damage ____ is the rapid determination of the scope of the breach of the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information and information assets during or just following an incident.
a. assessment c. recovery
b. evaluation d. plan
23. RAID ____ drives can be hot swapped.
a. 2 c. 4
b. 3 d. 5
24. A ____ site provides only
rudimentary services and facilities.
a. cool c. hot
b. warm d. cold
25. The transfer of large batches of data to an off-site facility is called ____.
a. security perimeter c. electronic vaulting
b. remote journaling d. database shadowing
1. Strategic planning is the process of moving the organization towards its ____.
a. standard c. mission
b. policy d. vision
2. Standards may be published, scrutinized, and ratified by a group,
as in formal or ____ standards.
a. de formale c. de jure
b. de public d. de facto
3. The ____ is based on and directly supports the mission, vision, and direction of the organization and sets the strategic direction, scope, and tone for all security efforts.
a. ISP c. GSP
b. EISP d. ISSP
4. ____ often function as standards or procedures to be used when configuring or maintaining systems.
a. ESSPs c. ISSPs
b. EISPs d. SysSPs
5.
A security ____ is an outline of the overall information security strategy for the organization and a roadmap for planned changes to the information security environment of the organization.
a. plan c. mission
b. framework d. blanket
6. The stated purpose of ____ is to "give recommendations for information security management for use by those who are responsible for initiating, implementing, or maintaining security in their organization."
a. NIST SP800-18 c. ISO/IEC
27002
b. RFC 2196
7. What country adopted ISO/IEC 17799?
a. United States c. Japan
b. Germany d. None of the above
8. SP 800-14, Generally Accepted Principles and Practices for Securing Information Technology Systems, provides best practices and security principles that can direct the security team in the development of a security ____.
a. plan c. policy
b. standard d
9. Effective management includes planning and ____.
a.
organizing c. controlling
b. leading d. All of the above
10. The Security Area Working Group acts as an advisory board for the protocols and areas developed and promoted by the Internet Society and the ____.
a. IETF c. ISOC
b. ISO/IEC d. IRTF
11. The spheres of ____ are the foundation of the security framework and illustrate how information is under attack from a variety of sources.
a. defense c. security
b. assessment d. information
12. ____ controls cover security processes that are designed by strategic planners and implemented by the security administration of the organization.
a. Managerial c. Operational
b. Technical d. Informational
13. Redundancy can be implemented at a number of points throughout the security architecture, such as in ____.
a. firewalls c. access controls
b. proxy servers d. All of the above
14. ____ controls address personnel security, physical
security, and the protection of production inputs and outputs.
a. Informational c. Technical
b. Operational d. Managerial
15. Security ____ are the areas of trust within which users can freely communicate.
a. perimeters c. rectangles
b. domains d. layers
16. A buffer against outside attacks is frequently referred to as a(n) ____.
a. proxy server c. DMZ
b. no-man's land d. firewall
17. ____-based IDPSs look at patterns of
network traffic and attempt to detect unusual activity based on previous baselines.
a. Firewall c. Network
b. Host d. Domain
18. The SETA program is the responsibility of the ____ and is a control measure designed to reduce the incidences of accidental security breaches by employees.
a. CIO c. CISO
b. CISCO d. end users
19. A(n) ____ plan deals with the identification, classification, response, and recovery from an incident.
a. CM c. DR
b. BC
d. IR
20. The first phase in the development of the contingency planning process is the ____.
a. BIA c. DP9
b. BRP d. IRP
21. An alert ____ is a document containing contact information for the people to be notified in the event of an incident.
a. message c. plan
b. roster d. list
22. Incident damage ____ is the rapid determination of the scope of the breach of the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information and
information assets during or just following an incident.
a. assessment c. recovery
b. evaluation d. plan
23. RAID ____ drives can be hot swapped.
a. 2 c. 4
b. 3 d. 5
24. A ____ site provides only rudimentary services and facilities.
a. cool c. hot
b. warm d. cold
25. The transfer of large batches of data to an off-site facility is called ____.
a. security perimeter c. electronic vaulting
b. remote journaling d. database
shadowing