A provider prescribes phenobarbital for a client who has a seizure disorder. The medication has a long half-life of 4 days. How many times per day should the nurse expect to administer this medication? A (Medications with long half-lives remain at their therapeutic levels between doses for long periods of time. The nurse should expect to administer this medication once a day.) A staff educator is reviewing medication dosages and factors that influence medication metabolism with a group of nurses at an in-service presentation. Which of the following factors should the educator include as a reason to administer lower medication
dosages? (Select all that apply.) Answer: C, E E. When the same pathway metabolizes two medications, they compete for metabolism, thereby increasing the concentration of one or both medications. This requires decreasing the dosage of one or both) A nurse is preparing to administer eye drops to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) b, d, e A nurse is completing discharge teaching for a client who has a new prescription for transdermal patches. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the instructions? C (The client should apply the patch to a hairless area of skin to promote absorption of the medication.) A nurse reviewing a client's medical record notes a new prescription for verifying the trough level of the client's
medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A (To verify trough levels of a medication, the nurse should obtain a blood specimen immediately before administering the next dose of medication.) A nurse is preparing a client's medications. Which of the following actions should the nurse take in following legal practice guidelines? (Select all that apply.) a, c, d C. A nurse is legally responsible for monitoring for side and adverse effects of medication D. Safeguarding of medications, such as controlled substances, is a legal responsibility of the nurse) A nurse reviewing a client's health record notes a new prescription for Lisinopril 10 mg PO once every day. The nurse should identify this as which of the following types of prescription? C (A routine or standard prescription identifies medications to give on a regular schedule with or without a termination date
or a specific number of doses. The nurse will administer A nurse is reviewing a new prescription for Ondansetron 4 mg PO PRN for nausea and vomiting for a client who has Hyperemesis Gravidarum. The nurse should clarify which of the following parts of the prescription with the provider? D (This prescription does not include the time or frequency of medication administration. The nurse must clarify this with the prescribing provide) A nurse is admitting a client and completing a preassessment before administering medications. Which of the following data should the nurse include in the preassessment? (Select all that
apply.) a, c, e C. The nurse should review the client's current health status because new prescriptions can cause alterations in current health status E. The nurse should inquire about food allergies during the preassessment to identify any potential reactions or interactions) A nurse orienting a newly licensed nurse is reviewing the procedure for taking a telephone prescription. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an B (A second nurse should listen to a telephone prescription to prevent errors in communication.) A nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin 1 g by intermittent IV bolus. Available is vancomycin 1 g in 100 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 45 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero. A nurse is preparing to administer
clindamycin 200 mg by intermittent IV bolus. The amount available is clindamycin injection 200 mg in 100 mL 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) to infuse over 30 min. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr? (Round A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The amount available is furosemide oral A nurse is preparing to administer Haloperidol 2 mg PO every 12 hr. The amount available is haloperidol 1 mg/tablet. how many tablets should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero. A nurse is preparing to administer Amoxicillin 20 mg/kg/day PO to divide equally every 12 hr to a preschooler who weighs 44 lb. The amount available is amoxicillin suspension 250 mg/5 mL. how many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.) A nurse is preparing to administer heparin 15,000 units subcutaneously every 12 hr. The amount available is heparin injection 20,000 units/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Do not use a trailing zero. A nurse is preparing to administer acetaminophen 650 mg PO every 6 hr PRN for pain. The amount available is acetaminophen liquid 500 mg/5 mL. A nurse is
preparing to administer dextrose 5% in water (D5W) 750 mL IV to infuse over 6 hr. The nurse should set the IV pump to A nurse is assessing a client's IV infusion site. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of phlebitis? (Select all that apply.) c, e A nurse manager is reviewing the facility's policies for IV therapy with the members of his team. The nurse manager should remind the team that which
of the following techniques helps minimize the risk of catheter embolism? D (The nurse manager should remind the members of the team to avoid reinserting the stylet needle into an IV catheter. This action can result in severing the end of the catheter and consequently cause a catheter embolism) A nurse is preparing to initiate IV therapy for an older adult client. Which of the following actions C (The nurse should distend the veins using a blood pressure cuff to reduce overfilling of the vein,which can result in a hematoma) A nurse assessing a client's IV catheter insertion site notes a hematoma. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) c, d D. Elevation of the arm helps reduce edema, which can cause pressure and pain and additional bleeding in the area of the hematoma.) A nurse in a clinic is caring for a group of clients. The nurse should contact the provider about a b, c, e C. Acetaminophen is contraindicated due to toxicity for a client who has a liver disorder. The nurse should notify the provider, who can prescribe a medication that does not contain acetaminophen. E. Warfarin is a Pregnancy Category X medication, which can cause severe birth defects to the fetus. The nurse should notify the provider about the suspected pregnancy) A nurse is preparing to administer
an IM dose of penicillin to a client who has a new prescription. The client states she took penicillin 3 years ago and developed a rash. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? B (The nurse should withhold the medication and notify the provider of the client's previous reaction to penicillin so that an alternative antibiotic can be prescribed. Allergic reactions to penicillin can range from mild to severe anaphylaxis, and prior sensitization should be reported to the provider.) A nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who has a new prescription for an antihypertensive medication. Which of the following statements
should the nurse give? D (Orthostatic hypotension is a common adverse effect of antihypertensive medications. The client should move slowly to a sitting or standing position and should be taught to sit or lie down if lightheadedness or dizziness occurs) A nurse is reviewing a client's health record and notes that the client experiences permanent C (The nurse should realize that extrapyramidal effects are movement disorders that can be caused by a number of central nervous system medications, such as typical antipsychotic medications) A nurse is caring for a client who is taking oral Oxycodone The client states he
is also taking Ibuprofen in three recommended doses daily. The nurse should identify that an interaction between these two medications will cause which of the following findings? C (These medications work together to increase the pain‑relieving effects of both medications. Oxycodone is a narcotic analgesic, and ibuprofen is an NSAID. They work by different mechanisms, but pain is better relieved when they are taken together) A nurse is preparing to administer medications to
a 4‑month‑old infant. Which of the following pharmacokinetic principles should the nurse consider when administering medications to this client? (Select all that apply.) b, c, d C. Infants have a poorly developed blood‑brain barrier, which places them at risk for adverse effects from medications that pass through the blood‑brain barrier. The nurse should administer these medications in smaller dosages. D. Because infants have more blood flowing to the skin and their skin is thin, their medication absorption is increased, making them prone to toxicity from topical medications) A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is pregnant and is at her first prenatal visit. Which of the following immunizations may the nurse administer safely to this client? C (During influenza season, providers recommend the inactivated influenza vaccine for women who are pregnant) A nurse on a medical‑surgical unit administers a hypnotic medication to an older adult client at 2100. The next morning, the client is drowsy and wants to sleep instead of eating breakfast. Which of the following
factors should the nurse identify as a possible reason for the client's drowsiness? C (Older adults have reduced hepatic function, which can prolong the effects of medications the liver metabolizes. The client probably needs a lower dosage of the hypnotic medication) A nurse working in an emergency department is caring for a client who has Benzodiazepine toxicity due to an overdose. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority? B (The first action the nurse should take when using the nursing process is to assess the client. Identifying the client's level of orientation is the priority action.) A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Escitalopram for treatment of generalized Anxiety disorder. Which of the following statements by the client indicates C (When discontinuing escitalopram, the client should taper the medication slowly according to a prescribed tapered dosing schedule to reduce the risk of withdrawal syndrome.) A nurse
is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for Buspirone to treat Anxiety. Which of the following information should the nurse include? D (Buspirone has a low risk for physical or psychological dependence or tolerance.) A nurse is teaching a client who has OCD and has a new prescription for Paroxetine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? A (Paroxetine can take 1 to 4 weeks before the client reaches full therapeutic benefit.) A nurse is caring for a client who takes Paroxetine to treat PTSD and reports that he grinds his teeth during the night. The nurse should identify which of the following interventions to manage Bruxism? (Select all
that apply.) a, c, d C.Using a mouth guard during sleep can decrease the risk for oral damage resulting from bruxism. D. Changing to different class of antidepressant medication that does not have the adverse effect of bruxism is an effective measure) A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Phenelzine for the treatment of depression. Which of the following indicates that the client has developed an adverse effect of this medication? A (Orthostatic hypotension is an adverse of effect of mAOIs, including phenelzine.) A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for Amitriptyline for treatment of depression. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
(Select all that apply.) C, E (C. Changing positions slowly helps prevent orthostatic hypotension, which is an adverse effect of amitriptyline E. Chewing sugarless gum can minimize dry mouth, which is an adverse effect of amitriptyline) A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for Fluoxetine for PTSD. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? A (Decreased libido is a potential A nurse is caring for a client who
has Depression and a new prescription for Venlafaxine. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor this client? (Select all that apply) a, b, c B.Dizziness is a common adverse effect of venlafaxine. C.Sexual dysfunction, such as decreased) A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking Sertraline for the past 2 days. Which of the following assessment findings should alert the nurse to the possibility that the client is developing Serotonin syndrome? B (Fever is a
manifestation of serotonin syndrome, A nurse is reviewing laboratory findings and notes that a client's plasma Lithium level is 2.1 mEq/L. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse? A (Gastric lavage is appropriate for a client who has severe toxicity, as evidenced by a plasma lithium level of 2.1 mEq/L. This action will lower the client's lithium level.) A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Lithium Carbonate. When teaching the client about ways to
prevent Lithium toxicity, the nurse should advise the client to do which of the following? D (The client should avoid activities that have the potential to cause sodium/water depletion, which can increase the risk for toxicity) A nurse is assessing a client who takes Lithium Carbonate for the treatment of Bipolar disorder. The nurse should recognize which of the following findings as a possible indication of toxicity to this medication? B (Coarse tremors are an indication of toxicity) A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Valproic Acid. The nurse should instruct the client that while taking this medication he will need to have which of the following laboratory tests completed periodically? (Select all that apply.) A, c, d C.Treatment with valproic acid can result in pancreatitis. D.Treatment with valproic acid can result in hepatotoxicity. A nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a female client who has Bipolar disorder and a new prescription for Carbamazepine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.) b, c, d, e C. Carbamazepine blood levels and the CBC should D. Carbamazepine can cause Stevens‑Johnson E. CNS effects such as drowsiness or dizziness can A nurse is
teaching a client who has schizophrenia strategies to cope with anticholinergic effects of Fluphenazine. Which of the following should the nurse suggest to the client to minimize anticholinergic effects? B (Chewing sugarless gum can help the client cope with dry mouth, a potential anticholinergic effect of fluphenazine) A nurse is assessing a male client who recently began taking Haloperidol. Which of the following findings is the highest priority to report to the provider? B (Neck spasms are an indication of acute dystonia which is a crisis situation requiring rapid treatment. This is the greatest risk to the client and is therefore the priority finding.) A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for Clozapine. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? D (Due to the risk for fatal agranulocytosis weekly monitoring of the client's WBC count is recommended while taking clozapine) A nurse is providing teaching for a male client who has Schizophrenia and is taking Risperidone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? A. "Add extra snacks to your diet to prevent weight loss." B (Gynecomastia (breast enlargement) and galactorrhea can occur due to an increase in prolactin levels while taking risperidone. The client should inform the provider if these manifestations occur.) A nurse is preparing to perform a follow‑up assessment on a client who takes Chlorpromazine for the treatment of Schizophrenia. The nurse should expect to find the
greatest improvement in which of the following manifestations? (Select all that apply.) a, b, d B. A client who takes a conventional antipsychotic medication, such as chlorpromazine, should have the greatest improvement in positive symptoms such as bizarre behavior D. A client who takes a conventional antipsychotic medication, such as chlorpromazine, should have the greatest improvement in positive symptoms such as hallucinations.) A nurse is teaching the parents of a child who has a new prescription for
Desipramine. The nurse should instruct the parents that which of the following adverse effects is the priority to report to the provider? B (The greatest risk to this client is injury from a suicide attempt; therefore, this is the priority. Desipramine can cause suicidal thoughts and behaviors which puts the client at risk. The parents should monitor and report any indication of increased depression or thoughts of suicidal behavior.) A nurse is teaching an adolescent client who has a new prescription for Clomipramine for OCD. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include to minimize an adverse effect of his medication? A (Wearing sunglasses when outdoors will decrease photophobia, an anticholinergic effect associated with TCA use) A nurse is caring for a school‑age child who has a new prescription for Atomoxetine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication? B (Liver damage is an adverse effect of atomoxetine. The nurse should monitor for manifestations such as jaundice, upper abdominal tenderness, darkening of urine, and elevated liver enzymes) A nurse is teaching the parents of a school‑age child about
transdermal Methylphenidate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? B (Transdermal methylphenidate is administered for 9 hr/day.) A nurse is teaching a school‑age
child and his parents about a new prescription for Lisdexamfetamine. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a, c, e C. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor his blood E.Lisdexamfetamine, a CNS stimulant, works by raising the levels of norepinephrine and dopamine in the CNS) A nurse is providing teaching for a client who is withdrawing from alcohol and has a new prescription for Propranolol. Which of the following information should the nurse to include in the teaching? C (Propranolol is an adjunct medication used during withdrawal to decrease the client's craving for alcohol) A charge nurse is planning a staff education session to discuss medications used during the care of a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following medications should the charge nurse include in the discussion? (Select all that apply.) a, b B. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used during alcohol A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for Clonidine to assist with maintenance of
abstinence from opioids. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects? B (Dry mouth is a common adverse effect associated with clonidine use) A nurse is teaching a female client who has tobacco use disorder about Nicotine replacement
therapy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching? A (The client should avoid eating or drinking 15 min prior to and while chewing the nicotine gum) A nurse in an acute mental health facility is caring for a client who is experiencing withdrawal from Opioid use and has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following actions should the nurse identify as the priority? D (Assessment is the initial step of the nursing process. Obtaining the client's baseline vital signs is the priority nursing action) A nurse in the post‑anesthesia recovery unit is caring for a client who received a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent and has
muscle weakness. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications? A (Neostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse the effects of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers) A nurse is providing information to a client who has early
Parkinson's disease and a new prescription for pramipexole. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication? A (Pramipexole can cause hallucinations within 9 months of the initial dose and might require discontinuation.) A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Levodopa/Carbidopa for Parkinson's disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? C (The client should take this medication with food to reduce GI effects.) A nurse is preparing to administer a medication to a client who has absence seizures. The nurse should anticipate administering which of the following medications to the client? (Select all that apply.) b, e, f
E. Valproic acid has a therapeutic effect when treating a client who has absence seizures and all other forms of seizures. F. Lamotrigine has a therapeutic effect when treating a client who has absence seizures and all other forms of seizure) A nurse is reviewing a new prescription for
oxcarbazepine with a female client who has partial seizures. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a, b, d, e B. An alternate form of contraception is D. The client should avoid driving if CNS effects of dizziness, drowsiness, and double vision develop. E. The client should notify the provider if a skin rash occurs because life‑threatening skin disorders can develop.) A nurse is instructing a client who has a new prescription for Timolol how to insert eye drops. The nurse should instruct the client to press on which of the following areas to prevent systemic absorption of the medication? B (Pressing on the nasolacrimal duct blocks the lacrimal punctum and prevents systemic absorption of the medication) A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Brimonidine ophthalmic drops and wears soft contact lenses. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? C (Brimonidine can absorb into soft contact lenses. The client should remove his contacts then instill the medication and wait at least 15 min before putting in his contacts back in.) A nurse in an emergency unit is reviewing the medical record of a client who is being evaluated for angle‑closure Glaucoma. Which of the following findings are indicative of this condition? C (Severe pain around eyes that radiates over the face is a manifestation of acute angle‑closure glaucoma) A nurse is teaching a client about preventing Otitis Externa. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? D (The client should remove water from the ear after showering or swimming to reduce the risk for otitis externa) A nurse in a provider's office is instructing a parent of a toddler how to administer ear drops. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a, b, c, d B. The parent should warm the medication C. The parent should gently shake medication that is in suspension form to evenly‑ disperse the medication. D.The parent should keep the child on his side to A nurse in the operating room is caring for a client who received a dose of Succinylcholine. During the operation, the client suddenly develops rigidity, and his body temperature begins to rise. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications? C (muscle rigidity and a sudden rise in temperature is a manifestation of malignant hyperthermia. Dantrolene acts on skeletal muscles to reduce metabolic activity and treat malignant hyperthermia.) A nurse in the post‑anesthesia care unit is caring for a client who is experiencing malignant hyperthermia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) A. Place a cooling blanket on the client. a, b, c, e B. The nurse should administer oxygen at 100% to treat decreased oxygen saturation. C. The nurse should take action to
decrease the E. The nurse should monitor core body temperature to prevent hypothermia and to A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Baclofen to treat muscle spasms. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? (Select
all that apply.) b, c, d C. The client should increase fluids and fiber to reduce the risk for constipation. D. The intake of alcohol and other CNS depressants can exacerbate the CNS depressant effects of baclofen. Therefore, the A
nurse is reviewing the health care record of a client who reports urinary incontinence and asks about a prescription for Oxybutynin. The nurse should recognize that Oxybutynin is contraindicated in the presence of which of the following conditions? D (Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic and can increase intraocular pressure. It is contraindicated for clients who have glaucoma) A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for Bethanechol to treat urinary retention. The nurse should recognize that which of the following findings is a manifestation of muscarinic stimulation? C (Bethanechol is a muscarinic agonist. muscarinic stimulation can result in sweating) A nurse is providing instructions to a client who has been experiencing Insomnia and has a new prescription for Temazepam. The nurse should inform the client that which of the following manifestations are adverse effects of temazepam? a, d, e D. Sleep driving (driving after taking the medication without memory of doing so) is an adverse effect of temazepam. E. Retrograde amnesia, the inability to remember the events that occurred after taking the medication, can occur as an adverse effect of temazepam) A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving moderate sedation with Diazepam IV. The client is oversedated. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client? C (Flumazenil is a competitive benzodiazepine antagonist used to reverse the sedation and other effects of benzodiazepines) A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Ramelteon. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which of the following foods while taking this medication? B (high‑fat foods, such as fried chicken prolong A nurse is caring for a client who is admitted to undergo a surgical procedure. Which of the following preexisting conditions can be a contraindication for the use of Ketamine as an intravenous anesthetic? D (Ketamine can produce psychological effects, such as hallucinations. Therefore, schizophrenia can be a contraindication for the use of Ketamine) A nurse is providing instructions to a female client who has a new prescription for Zolpidem. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? A (Zolpidem is Pregnancy Risk Category C. The client should notify the provider if she plans to become pregnant) A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Beclomethasone. Which of the following instructions
should the nurse include? A (The client should rinse her mouth after each use to reduce the risk of oral fungal infection) A nurse is providing instructions to a client who has a new prescription for Albuterol and Beclomethasone inhalers for the control of asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? B (When a client is prescribed an inhaled beta2‑agonist (such as albuterol) and an inhaled glucocorticoid (such as beclomethasone), the client should take the beta2‑agonist first. The beta2‑agonist promotes bronchodilation and enhances absorption of the glucocorticoid.) A nurse is providing instructions to the parent of an adolescent client who has a new
prescription for Albuterol, PO. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? B (Tremors can occur due to excessive stimulation of beta2 receptors of skeletal muscles) A nurse is teaching a client who has a prescription for long‑term use of oral prednisone for treatment of chronic asthma. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication? A.Weight gain A (Weight gain and fluid retention are adverse effects of oral prednisone due to the effect of sodium and water retention) A nurse is caring for a client who states she has been taking Phenylephrine nasal drops for the past 10 days for Sinusitis. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication? B (When used for over 5 days, rebound nasal congestion can occur when taking nasal sympathomimetic medications, such as phenylephrine) A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Dextromethorphan to suppress a cough. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication? C (Dextromethorphan can cause sedation. Advise the client to avoid activities that require alertness) A nurse is teaching the family of a child who has Cystic Fibrosis and a new prescription for B (Acetylcysteine has a sulfur content that causes a rotten‑egg odor) A nurse is teaching a client who has a new
prescription for Diphenhydramine for allergic Rhinitis. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse reactions of this medication? (Select all that apply.) a, d, e D. Drowsiness is an adverse reaction of this medication. Diphenhydramine is administered to treat insomnia. E. Urinary retention is an anticholinergic manifestation that can occur when a client takes diphenhydramine.) A nurse is teaching a client about the use of Fluticasone to treat Perennial Rhinitis. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? B (The client can see some benefits of the medication within a few hours, but the maximum benefits can take up to 3 weeks.) A nursing is planning care for a client who is receiving Furosemide IV for peripheral edema. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a, c, d, e C. A decrease in serum potassium levels is an adverse effect of furosemide, and the nurse should notify the provider. D. Slowly elevating the head of the bed will prevent the client from developing orthostatic E. A banana is high in potassium. The
A nurse is providing information to a client who has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following information should the nurse include? A (The client should take hydrochlorothiazide with or after meals to prevent gastrointestinal upset) A nurse is providing information to a client who has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following information should the nurse include? C (Serum potassium of 5.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia. Because spironolactone causes potassium retention, the nurse should withhold the medication and notify the provider) A nurse is caring for a client
who has increased intracranial pressure and is receiving Mannitol. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? C (Dyspnea is a manifestation of heart failure, an adverse effect of mannitol. The nurse should A nurse is planning caring for a client who is has a new prescription for Torsemide. The nurse should plan to monitor for which of the following adverse reactions of this medications? (Select all that apply.) b, c, d, e C. The nurse should plan to monitor for hypotension. D. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for ototoxicity. E. The nurse should plan to monitor for A nurse is reviewing the health record of a client who
asks about using Propranolol to treat hypertension. The nurse should recognize which of the following conditions is a contraindication for taking propranolol? A (Propranolol is a nonselective beta‑adrenergic blocker that blocks both beta1 and beta2 A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Verapamil to control Hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? A (Increasing dietary fiber intake can help prevent constipation, an adverse effect of verapamil) A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Captopril for hypertension. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication? C (Neutropenia is a serious adverse effect that can occur in clients taking an ACE inhibitor. The nurse should monitor the client's CBC and teach the client to report indications of infection to the provider.) A nurse in an acute care facility is caring for a client who is receiving IV Nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis. The
nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions to this medication? C (Delirium and other mental status changes can occur in thiocyanate toxicity when IV nitroprusside is infused at a high dosage. monitor thiocyanate level during therapy to remain below 10 mg/dL.) A nurse is planning to administer a first dose of Captopril to a client who has hypertension. Which of the following medications can intensify first dose hypotension? A. Simvastatin b, d, e D. Clonidine, a centrally acting alpha2 E. Aliskiren, a direct renin inhibitor, is an A nurse in a provider's office is monitoring serum electrolytes for four older adult clients who take digoxin. Which of the following electrolyte values increases a client's risk for Digoxin toxicity? C (Potassium 3.4 mEq/L is below the expected reference range and puts a client at risk for digoxin toxicity. Low Potassium can cause fatal dysrhythmias, especially in older clients who take Digoxin. The nurse should notify the provider, who might prescribe a potassium supplement or a potassium‑sparing diuretic for the client) A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has a new prescription for Digoxin and takes multiple other medications. The nurse should recognize that concurrent use
of which of the following medications places the client at risk for Digoxin toxicity? B (Verapamil, a calcium‑channel blocker, can A nurse is administering a Dopamine infusion at a low dose to a client who has severe heart failure. Which of the following findings is an expected effect of this medication? B (The nurse should expect dopamine to cause increased
myocardial contractility, which also increases cardiac output. This occurs with the stimulation of beta1 receptors and is a positive A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for Digoxin. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor and report which of the following adverse effects that is a
manifestation Digoxin toxicity? (Select all that apply.) a, c, e C. GI disturbances, such as anorexia, E. Visual changes, such as diplopia and A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? A (The client should contact the provider for a heart rate less than 60/min) A nurse is teaching a client who has Angina Pectoris and is learning how to treat acute Anginal attacks. The clients asks, "What is my next step if I take one tablet, wait 5 minutes, but still have Anginal pain?" Which of the following responses should the nurse make? B (The next step is to call 911 and then take a A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Nitroglycerin transdermal patch for Angina Pectoris. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? A (In order to prevent tolerance to nitroglycerin, the client should remove the patch for 10 to 12 hr during each 24‑hr period) A nurse is taking a medication history from a client who has Angina and is to begin taking Ranolazine. The nurse should report which of the following medications
in the client's history that can interact with Ranolazine? (Select all that apply.) a, b, c B. Concurrent use with ranolazine increases serum levels of simvastatin, so liver toxicity can result. C. Verapamil is an inhibitor of CYP3A4, which can increase levels of ranolazine and lead to the dysrhythmia torsades de pointes.) A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed Isosorbide Mononitrate for chronic stable Angina and develops reflex tachycardia. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer? D (metoprolol, a beta adrenergic blocker, is used to treat hypertension and stable angina pectoris, and is often prescribed to decrease heart rate in clients who have tachycardia) A nurse is teaching a client who has angina how to use nitroglycerin transdermal ointment. The nurse should include which of the following instructions? A (The client should remove the prior dose before applying a new dose to prevent toxicity) A nurse is assessing a
client who is taking Amiodarone to treat Atrial Fibrillation. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of Amiodarone toxicity? C (Productive cough can indicate pulmonary toxicity or heart failure. The nurse should assess for cough, chest pain, and shortness of breath) A nurse is caring for a client who received IV Verapamil to treat supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The client's pulse rate is now 98/min and his blood pressure is 74/44 mg hg. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following IV medications? A (Reverse severe hypotension caused by Verapamil with Calcium gluconate, given slowly IV. The calcium counteracts vasodilation caused by verapamil. Other measures to increase blood pressure can include IV fluid therapy and placing the client in a modified Trendelenburg position.) A nurse is assessing a client who is taking Digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of digoxin
toxicity? D (Anorexia, blurred vision, stomach pain, and diarrhea are manifestations of digoxin toxicity) A nurse is assessing a client who has taken Procainamide to treat dysrhythmias for the last 12 months. The nurse should assess the client for
which of the following adverse effects of this medication? (Select all that apply.) b, d, e D. Procainamide can cause bone marrow depression, with neutropenia (infection) and thrombocytopenia (easy bruising, bleeding) E. Systemic lupus erythematosus‑like syndrome A nurse is preparing to administer Propranolol to a client who has a dysrhythmia. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take? A. Hold propranolol for an apical pulse greater than 100/min. C (Propranolol can cause orthostatic hypotension, so it is important assess for dizziness during ambulation or when moving to a sitting position.) A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is starting Simvastatin. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? A (The client should take simvastatin in the evening because nighttime is when the most cholesterol is synthesized in the body. Taking statin medications in the evening increases medication effectiveness) A nurse is collecting data from a client who is taking Gemfibrozil. Which of the following assessment
findings should the nurse identify as an adverse reaction to the medication? C (Jaundice, anorexia, and upper abdominal A nurse is teaching a client who is taking
Digoxin and has a new prescription for Colesevelam. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? D (Colesevelam should be taken with food and at least 8 oz of water) A nurse is completing a nursing history for a client who takes Simvastatin. The nurse should identify which of the following disorders as a contraindication to adding Ezetimibe to the client's medications? C (Ezetimibe is contraindicated in clients who have an active moderate‑to‑severe liver disorder, especially if the client is already taking a statin, such as simvastatin) A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Niacin to reduce cholesterol. The nurse should monitor for which of the following findings as an adverse effect of Niacin?
(Select all that apply.) b, d, e D. Flushing of the skin, along with tingling of the extremities, occurs soon after taking niacin. The effect should decrease in a few weeks, and can be minimized by taking an aspirin tablet 30 min before the Niacin. E. Niacin can cause liver disorders, so the nurse should monitor for jaundice, abdominal pain, and anorexia.) A nurse is planning to administer subcutaneous enoxaparin 40 mg using a prefilled syringe of Enoxaparin 40 mg/0.4 mL to an adult client following hip arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take? B (The nurse should inject the needle on the prefilled syringe completely when administering enoxaparin in order to administer the medication by deep subcutaneous injection.) A nurse is caring for a hospitalized client who is receiving IV heparin for a deep‑vein thrombosis. The client begins vomiting blood. After the heparin has been stopped, which A. Vitamin k1 C (Protamine reverses the anticoagulant effect of heparin) A nurse is planning to administer IV Alteplase to a client who is demonstrating manifestations of a massive Pulmonary Embolism. Which of the following interventions should the nurse plan to take? B (The nurse should plan to hold direct pressure on puncture sites for 10 to 30 min or until oozing of blood stops) A nurse is monitoring a client who takes aspirin 81 mg PO daily. The nurse should identify which of A. Hypertension b, c, e C. Tinnitus and hearing loss can occur as an adverse effect of aspirin therapy E. Nausea, vomiting, and abdominal
A nurse is caring for a client who has Atrial Fiibrillation and a new prescription for Dabigatran to prevent development of Thrombosis. Which of the following medications is prescribed concurrently to treat an adverse effect of Dabigatran? C (Omeprazole or another proton pump inhibitor is prescribed for a client who is taking dabigatran and has abdominal pain and other GI findings that can occur as adverse effects of dabigatran. The nurse should advise the client who has GI effects to take dabigatran with food) A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving daily doses of Oprelvekin. Which of the following laboratory
values should the nurse monitor to determine effectiveness of this medication? C (The expected outcome for oprelvekin is a platelet count greater than 50,000/mm^3.) A nurse is preparing to administer Filgrastim for the first time to a client
who has just undergone a bone marrow transplant. Which of the following interventions is appropriate? D (Only one dose of filgrastim should be withdrawn from the vial and the vial should then be discarded.) A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving Epoetin alfa for adverse effects. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as an adverse effect of this medication? (Select all that apply) b, e
E.headache is an adverse effect of epoetin alfa) A nurse is assessing a client who has chronic Neutropenia and who has been receiving Gilgrastim. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to assess for an adverse effect of filgrastim? A (Bone pain is a dose‑related adverse effect of Filgrastim. It can be treated with acetaminophen and, if necessary, an opioid analgesic) A nurse is preparing to administer a
transfusion of 300 mL of pooled platelets for a client who has severe Thrombocytopenia. The nurse should plan to administer the transfusion over which of the following time frames? A (Platelets are fragile and should be administered quickly to reduce the risk of clumping. The nurse should administer the platelets within 15 to 30 min/unit) A nurse is transfusing a unit of packed Red blood cells (PRBCs) for a client who has Anemia due to Chemotherapy. The client reports a sudden headache and chills. The client's temperature is 2° F higher than her baseline. In addition to notifying the provider, which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a, c, d C. The nurse should avoid infusing more PRBCs into the client's
vein, and should remove the D. Obtaining a urine specimen to check for hemolysis is standard procedure when the client has a reaction to a blood transfusion) A nurse is preparing to transfuse a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) for a client who has severe anemia. Which of the following interventions will prevent an acute hemolytic reaction? A.Ensure that the client has a patent IV line before B (Identifying and matching the correct blood product with the correct client will prevent an acute hemolytic reaction from occurring because this reaction is caused by ABO or Rh incompatibility) A nurse is caring for a hospitalized client who has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) greater than 1.5 times the expected reference range. Which of the following blood products should the nurse prepare to transfuse? C (Fresh frozen plasma is indicated for a client who has an elevated aPTT because it replaces coagulation factors and can help prevent bleeding) A nurse is assessing a client during transfusion of a unit of whole blood. The client develops a cough, shortness of breath,
elevated blood pressure, and distended neck veins. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications? C (Furosemide, a loop diuretic, may be prescribed to relieve manifestations of circulatory overload) A nurse is providing instructions
to a client who has a prescription for Amoxicillin and Clarithromycin to treat a Peptic Ulcer. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? A (The nurse should instruct the client to take these medications with food to reduce GI disturbances) A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Omeprazole for management of heartburn. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? B (Omeprazole reduces gastric acid secretion by inhibiting the enzyme that produces gastric acid) A nurse is teaching a client who is taking Sucralfate PO for Peptic Ulcer Disease has a new prescription for phenytoin to control seizures. Which of the following instructions C (Sucralfate can interfere with the absorption of phenytoin, so the client should allow a 2‑hr interval between the sucralfate and phenytoin.) A nurse is caring for four clients who have Peptic Ulcer Disease. The nurse should recognize Misoprostol is contraindicated for which of the following clients? A (misoprostol can induce labor and is contraindicated in pregnancy.) A nurse is providing a client who has Peptic Ulcer Disease with instructions about managing his condition. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) d, e E. Smoking inhibits healing of the ulcer.) A nurse is caring for a client who received Prochlorperazine 4 hr ago. The client reports spasms of his face. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications? A.Fomepizole
D (An adverse effect of prochlorperazine is acute dystonia, which is evidenced by spasms of the muscles in the face, neck, and tongue. Diphenhydramine is used to suppress extrapyramidal effects of prochlorperazin) A nurse is planning to administer Ondansetron IV for an older adult client
who has a history of diabetes mellitus and cardiac myopathy and is receiving chemotherapy for cancer. For which of the following adverse effects of ondansetron should the nurse monitor? (Select all that apply.) a, b, e B. Diarrhea or constipation are both adverse effects of ondansetron E. A prolonged QT interval is a possible adverse effect of ondansetron that can lead to torsades de pointes, a serious dysrhythmia.) A nurse is providing instructions about the use of laxatives to a client who has heart failure. The nurse should tell the client he should avoid which of the following laxatives? A (Typically, clients who have heart failure A nurse is caring for a client who has Diabetes and is experiencing Nausea due to Gastroparesis. The nurse
should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications? B (Metoclopramide is a dopamine antagonist that is used to treat nausea and also increases gastric motility. It can relieve the bloating and nausea of diabetic gastroparesis.) A nurse is
providing information about Probiotic supplements to a male client. Which of the following information should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a, b, d B. Probiotics are used to treat a number of GI D. Flatulence and bloating are adverse A nurse is teaching a client who has Anemia and a new prescription for a liquid Iron supplement. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the A. "Add foods that are high in fiber to your diet." a, b, c, e B. Iron supplements can stain teeth when taken in a liquid C. Dark green or black stools can occur when taking E. Red meats are high in iron and recommended for a client to improve anemia when taken concurrently with iron supplements.) A nurse is caring for a client who has increased liver enzymes and is taking herbal supplements. Which of the following herbal supplements should the nurse report to the provider? C (Chronic use or high doses of kava can cause liver damage, including severe liver failure) A nurse is evaluating a group of clients at a health fair to identify the need for folic acid therapy. Which of the following clients require folic acid therapy? (Select all that apply.) A.12‑year‑old child who has iron deficiency
anemia b, d D. The client who has alcohol use disorder can A nurse is preparing to administer Potassium Chloride IV to a client who has Hypokalemia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a, d, e D. Implement cardiac monitoring to detect cardiac dysrhythmias in a client receiving IV potassium. E. Administer IV potassium using an infusion pump to prevent fatal hyperkalemia due to a rapid infusion rate) A nurse is caring for a client who requests information on the use of Feverfew. Which of the following responses should the nurse make? B (Feverfew is used to decrease the frequency of migraine headaches, but it has not been A nurse is completing an assessment of a client's current medications. The client states she also takes Gingko Biloba. Which of the following medications is contraindicated for a client taking Gingko Biloba? B (Warfarin is contraindicated for a client taking gingko biloba because ginkgo biloba can suppress coagulation and increase the risk of bleeding or hemorrhage) A nurse is reviewing the health care record of a client who is asking about conjugated equine estrogens. The nurse should
inform the client this medication is contraindicated in which of the following conditions? D (Estrogen increases the risk of thrombolytic |
Which finding would the nurse expect to observe in a patient who has developed phlebitis Quizlet
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