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Terms in this set (91)

101. The term "pork barrel" refers to legislation specifically designed to the following issues?

(A) encourage a balanced federal budget.
(B) ensure the careful inspection of farm goods and other foodstuffs.
(C) distribute excess produce to the poor.
(D) provide funding for local projects that are intended to benefit constituents.
(E) equalize representation between farming

D

102. Which of the following is the most likely consequence of divided government?

(A) Reorganization of the federal bureaucracy
(B) Conflicts between states
(C) Delays in confirmation of federal court nominees (D) Conflicts between national government and states
(E) Elimination of the seniority rule in Congress

C

103. Which of the following statements about the Senate is true?

(A) Each state is represented in the Senate according to its population.
(B) The Senate, unlike the House, has a Rules Committee.
(C) Individual senators can exercise substantial influence over the legislative process.
(D) The Senate has a strict time limit on debates.
(E) The Senate is more responsible than the House for initiating appropriations legislation.

C

104. All of the following are ways that the legislative branch can check the powers of the executive branch EXCEPT:

(A) Congress may remove the president through its impeachment and conviction powers.
(B) Congress may override a presidential veto.
Congress may pass a law declaring a presidential action unconstitutional.
(D) The Senate may refuse to approve a presidential appointment.
(E) The Senate may refuse to approve a treaty negotiated by the president.

C

105. Which of the following is an example of congressional oversight?

(A) Holding hearings for review of an executive agency's activities. (B) Assisting constituents with particular problems.
(C) Reporting campaign contributions to &e Federal Election Commission.
(D) Signing trade agreements with other countries without input from the president. (E) Conducting ethics investigations of congressional leadership.

A

106. Which of the following statements about motions for cloture is true?

(A) They force a bill out of committee so that the full House can vote on it.
(B) They are applied to bills that failed in the previous session of Congress.
(C) They are applied only to appropriation bills.
(D) They are used by senators to end a filibuster and bring a bill to a vote.
(E) They occur whenever a bill is reported out of committee.

D

107. The role Congress plays in ensuring that executive branch agencies are carrying out their legislated responsibilities is known as

(A) judicial review
(B) legislative oversight
(C) bicameralism
(D) federalism
(E) executive privilege

B

108. The Constitution states that all revenue bills must originate in

(A) a White House budget resolution.
(B) the Congressional Budget Office.
(C) the United States Senate.
(D) the United States House of Representatives.
(E) the Office of Management and Budget removed by the president.

D

109. Of the following, which is the most powerful figure in Congress?

(A) The Chair of the House Ways and Means Committee.
(B) The Speaker of the House.
(C) The Minority Whip of the Senate.
(D) The Majority Whip of the House.
(E) The Chair of the Senate Finance Committee.

B

110. Which of the following is a member of the White House Staff?

(A) The chair of the Federal Reserve Board.
(B) The National Security Advisor.
(C) The Secretary of Commerce.
(D) The ambassador to the United Nations. (E) The Attomey General Possible.

B

111. How is a president chosen when none of the candidates receives a majority of the Electoral College vote?

(A) There is a national runoff election between the two candidates with the greatest number of electoral votes.
(B) The United States Supreme Court directly elects the president.
(C) The election is ruled null and void and Congress appoints a new president
(D) The Senate chooses a new president by a majority vote of its entire membership.
(E) The House chooses a new president by a majority vote of it

E

112. Which of the following is an example of presidential use of Inherent Powers?

(A) George H. W. Bush's appointment of Clarence Thomas.
(B) Bill Clinton's line-item veto of some congressionally authorized funds to the states.
(C) Thomas Jefferson's Louisiana Purchase.
(D) Woodrow Wilson's signing of the Treaty of Versailles.
(E) Dwight Eisenhower's deployment of troops to Arkansas.

C

113. Which of the following is true about the pocket veto?

(A) It is used to strike down a provision of a bill that the President finds disagreeable.
(B) It may be overridden by a two-thirds vote in Congress.
(C) It occurs when the President takes no action on a bill for ten days during which Congress is adjoumed.
(D) It is used when the President can to reach a compromise with Congress about a bill.
(E) It is used when both houses of Congress pass separate versions of the same bill.

C

114. In the process and structure of public policymaking, ''iron triangles" refer to the

(A) bargaining and negotiating process between the President and Congress about the direction of domestic policy
(B) dominance of corporate power in setting the national policy agenda for economic expansion
(C) interrelationship among federal, state, and local levels of government in the policy process
(D) networks of congressional committees, bureaucratic agencies, and interest groups that strongly influence the policy process
(E) group of presidential advisers who formulate the President's foreign policy agenda

D

115. Which of the following best describes the primary formal role of the Attorney General?

(A) Providing legal advice for the president and cabinet secretaries.
(B) Serving as a liaison between the president and the Supreme Court.
(C) Serving as the chief executive officer of the Department of Justice.
(D) Directing the Government Accountability Office (GAG).
(E) Persuading the Senate to confirm the president's judicial nominees.

C

116. The Supreme Court's power of judicial review permits the Court to overrule all of the following EXCEPT

(A) lower-court decisions
(B) state legislation
(C) acts of Congress
(D) the Bill of Rights
(E) executive orders

D

117. Which of the following United States Supreme Court cases established the principle of Judicial Review?

(A) McCulloch V. Maryland
(B) Gibbons v. Ogden
(C) Wolfv. Colorado
(D)Roev. Wade
(E) Marbury v. Madison

E

118. Which of the following best explains the principle of Stare Decisis

(A) It requires that at least four Supreme Court justices agree to hear a case.
(B) It encourages presidents to take judicial experience into account when nominating judges.
(C) It encourages judges to follow precedent when deciding cases.
(D) It reinforces the philosophy of judicial activism.
(E) It increases the number of cases judges are required to hear

C

119. Which of the following statements about Writs of Certiorari is accurate?

(A) Cases appealed by the solicitor general are automatically granted certiorari.
(B) The Supreme Court grants certiorari for less than 5% of the cases appealed to it.
(C) The Supreme Court has historically granted certiorari to all separation of powers cases.
(D) The Supreme Court does not grant certiorari to cases involving state laws.
(E) Federal district courts sometimes issue writs of certiorari to state appellate courts.

B

120. Nominations to the Supreme Court must be approved by

(A) simple majority vote in the Senate only.
(B) simple majority vote in both the House of Representatives and the Senate.
(C) two-thirds vote in the House of Representatives only.
(D) two-thirds vote in both the House of Representatives and the Senate.
(E) two-thirds vote in the House of Representatives and the Senate and a majority of the sitting justices on the Supreme Court.

A

121. Which of the following is true of most federal judges appointed by the president?

(A) They serve ten-year terms.
(B) They serve as long as the appointing.
(C) They serve for life on good behavior unless removed by the President.
(D) They serve for life on good behavior unless impeached and convicted by Congress.
(E) They serve for life and are not subject to Congressional impeachment.

D

122. The difference between an appellate court and a district court is that an appellate court
(A) conducts trials by jury.
(B) has original jurisdiction.
(C) reviews previous court decisions.
(D) hears civil cases but not criminal cases.
(E) does not follow the principle of stare decisis.

C

123. All of the foUowing contribute to the success of incumbent members of Congress in election
campaigns EXCEPT

a. Incumbents usually raise more campaign funds than do their challengers.
b. Incumbents tend to understand national issues better than do their challengers. c. Incumbents are usually better known to voters than are their challengers.
d. Incumbents can use legislatives staff to perform campaign services.
e. Incumbents often sit on committees that permit to serve district interests.

B

124. The voting patterns of members of Congress correlate most strongly with a. The population density of their districts.

b. Their economic background.
c. Their education level.
d. Their political party affiliation. e. The location of their districts.

D

125. A member of the House of Representatives who wishes to be influential in the House itself would most likely seek a place on which of the following committees?

a. Agriculture.
b. International Relations.
c. Transportation and Infrastructure. d. Rules.
e. Veterans' Affairs.

D

126. Congressional district boundaries are usually redrawn every ten years by the

a. Bureau of the Census
b. State legislatures
c. President
d. House Rules Committee
e. Federal Election Commission

B

127. The franking privilege refers to the

a. Federal Reserve Board's control over interest rates.
b. Practice of permitting senators to preview lists of judicial nominees.
c. Practice whereby legislators with the most seniority select the committees on which they want to serve. d. Right of the chair to control the schedule of his or her congressional committee.
e. Right of members of Congress to send mail to their constituents at the government's expense.

E

128. Which of the following committees of the House of Representatives sets the conditions for debate and amendment of most legislation?

a. Ways and Means
b. Appropriations
c. Judiciary
d. Rules
e. Government Operations

D

129. An electoral system based on single member districts is usually characterized by

a. Strong, centralized political parties and a weak executive.
b. Higher rates of voter turnout than are common in other systems.
c. Legislative representation of each party in proportion to the number of votes it receives proportion.
d. Domination of the legislature by two political parties.
e. Ideological rather than mass based parties.

D

130. A major difference between the House of Representatives and the Senate is that a. Filibusters are possible only in the House.

b. Revenue bills must originate in the Senate.
c. Judicial nominations originate in a House committee.
d. Each state has equal representation in the House but not in the Senate.
e. There is unlimited debate in the senate but not in the House.

E

131. To which of the following congressional committees would a proposal to reform the national income tax system initially be sent?

a. House Appropriations Committee
b. House Ways and Means Committee c. House Budget Committee
d. Senate Budget Committee
e. Senate Finance Committee

B

132. In the last fifty years (probably more), the single most important variable in determining the outcome of an election for a member of the House of Representatives has been

a. Incumbency.
b. Personal wealth.
c. Previous political offices held in the district.
d. Membership in the political party of the president. e. Positions on key social issues.

A

133. The details of legislation are usually worked out in which of the following settings?

a. A party caucus
b. The majority leader's office
c. The floor of the House
d. Legislative hearings
e. A committee or subcommittee

E

134. Most of the bills introduced in the House and the Senate are then

a. Passed by one chamber but not the other.
b. Passed by one chamber but not the other.
0. Referred to committee but never sent to the full Congress.
d. Voted down during the amendment stage of the floor debate.
e. Killed in the Rules Committee.

C

135. The congressional power that has been contested most frequently in the federal courts

a. Establish post ofRces.
b. Coin money.
c. Levy taxes.
d. Regulate commerce with foreign nations.
e. Regulate interstate commerce.

E

136. Which of the following actions can Congress take if the Supreme Court finds a federal law unconstitutional?

a. Appeal the Court's decision to the District of Columbia's Court of Appeals.
b. Formally request the President to veto the Court's decision.
c. Remove certain members of the Court and replace them with new members.
d. Try to amend the Constitution.
e. Reenact the same law.

D

137. Which of the following statements about Congress is true?

a. Members of Congress only occasionally are interested in and pay attention to constituents.
b. The legislative process is frequently lengthy, decentralized and characterized by compromise and bargaining.
c. Lobbyists and political action committees (PACs) successfully induce most members of Congress to trade their votes for campaign contributions.
d. The growth in the size of Congress as an organization is the principal cause of growth in the federal budget deficit.
e. Debate in both houses is structured by elaborate rules enacted by leaders of the majority party.

B

138. In the 1992 election, the membership of Congress was altered significantly by an increase in the number of

a. Conservative Democrats.
b. Liberal Republicans.
c. Third party representatives
d. Political independents
e. Minorities and women

E

139. The role of a conference committee in Congress is to

a. Hold hearings on proposed legislation.
b. Oversee the actions of the executive branch of the government. c. Decide which bills should be considered by the full Senate.
d. Conduct hearings that make information available to the public.
e. Reconcile differences in bills passed by the House and Senate.

E

140. The committee system is more important in the House than in the Senate because

a. The seniority system plays no role in the House and therefore committees must play a larger role.
b. The Constitution mandates the type of committee structure in the House.
c. Committee members are appointed by the President.
d. The House is so large that more work can be accomplished in committees than on the floor.
e. The majority party in the House prefers to give priority to the work of the committees.

D

141. Congressional standing committees are best described as

a. Specially appointed investigative bodies.
b. Joint committees of the two houses of Congress.
c. Committees created for each session.
d. Permanent subject matter committees.
e. Advisory staff agencies.

D

142. Debate of a bill in the House of Representatives under a "closed rule" means that

a. The bill can only be amended by section.
b. Debate on the bill will consist of five-minute speeches, pro and con.
c. Only senior members are allowed to participate.
d. Amendments to the bill cannot be offered.
e. The bill must be approved by 2/3 of the House.

D

143. In vetoing a bill, the President does which of the following?

a. Rejects only a part of the bill without rejecting it entirely.
b. Prevents any further action on the bill.
c. Sends the bill back to conference committee.
Rejects all sections of the bill.
e. Decides the bill's constitutionality.

D

144. Which of the following is true of a presidential veto of a piece of legislation?

a. It is rarely overridden by Congress.
b. It is not binding unless supported by the Cabinet.
c. It can only be sustained on revenue bills.
d. It is automatically reviewed by the United States Supreme Court.
e. It is subject to approval by a congressional committee.

A

145. In which of the following scenarios would a presidential veto MOST likely be upheld?

a. The President has the support of the Supreme Court.
b. The President is in a second term, removed from partisan politics.
c. The proposed legislation enjoys widespread bipartisan support.
d. The proposed legislation was originally adopted by a large majority in both houses of Congress.
e. Two thirds of the representatives and senators are members of the same party as the President.

C

146. Which of the following is NOT a presidential role authorized by the Constitution?

a. To be commander in chief of the armed forces
b. To lead the political party of the President
c. To negotiate treaties with foreign nations
d. To be chief executive
e. To present the State of the Union address

B

147. The President can do which of the following without seeking the consent of either the House or the Senate?

a. Ratify a treaty
b. Appoint ambassadors
c. Appoint district court judges
d. Deploy troops
e. Declare war

D

148. Which of the following is true about the line item veto?

a. It is specifically granted to the President by the Constitution.
b. It is used by many state govemors.
c. It is basically the same as a pocket veto.
d. Its use was upheld by the Supreme Court
e. It would, if instituted, strengthen the power of congressional leaders.

B

149. Since the 1970s, Presidents have made use of executive orders at an increasing rate because executive orders

a. Are noncontroversial measures that can be easily implemented?
b. Are rarely defeated in Congress.
c. Do not need to be passed by Congress.
d. Avoid judicial review.
e. Must be ratified by the Senate rather than by the House.

C

In US V, Nixon, the Supreme Court ruled that

a. The judicial branch should not intervene in political disputes between the President and Congress.
b. Presidential power is not automatically extended during times of national emergency.
c. Presidents must account to the Court for the way in which they implement policy.
d. There is no constitutional guarantee of unqualified executive privilege.
e. The President does not have the power of an item veto over congressional legislation.

D

151. The President's veto power Is accurately described by which of the following statements?

I. A President sometimes threatens to veto a bill that is under discussion in order to influence
congressional decision-making.

II. A President typically vetoes about a third of the bills passed by Congress

III. Congress is usually unable to override a President's veto

a. I only
b. Ill only
c. I and III only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III

C

152. The usefulness to the President of having cabinet members as political advisors is undermined by the fact that

a. The President has litde latitude in choosing cabinet members.
b. Cabinet members have no political support independent of the President.
c. Cabinet members are usually drawn from Congress and retain loyalties to Congress.
d. The loyalties of cabinet members are often divided between loyalty to the President and loyalty to their own executive departments.
e. The cabinet operates as a collective unit and individual members have no access to the President.

D

153. When selecting a vice-presidential candidate, a presidential nominee is usually concerned primarily ' with choosing a
running mate who

a. Has significant personal wealth.
b. Adds balance and appeal to the national ticket.
c. Comes fi*om the same ideological wing of the party as the President.
d. Can serve as the most important domestic policy adviser to the President.
e. Can effectively preside over the Senate.

B

154. All of the following powers are granted to the President by the Constitution EXCEPT:

a. Commissioning officers in the armed forces.
b. Addressing the Congress on the state of the union.
c. Receiving ambassadors.
d. Granting pardons for federal offenses.
e. Forming new cabinet level departments.

E

155. Which of the following is articulated in the War Powers Resolution?

a. The President may declare war.
b. The President must finance any war efforts from a special contingency fund.
c. The President must bring troops home from hostilities within 60 to 90 days unless Congress extends the time.
d. The President may not nationalize state militias without congressional consent.
e. The President may not send troops into hostilities without a declaration of war from Congress or a resolution from the United Nations.

C

156. Which of the following procedures results in the removal of the President from office?

a. The House and Senate vote for impeachment and the Supreme Court reaches a guilty verdict.
b. The House votes for impeachment, and the Senate conducts a trial and reaches a guilty verdict.
c. The House and Senate both vote for a bill of impeachment.
d. Only the House votes for a bill of impeachment.
e. A criminal court finds the President guilty of "high crimes and misdemeanors."

B

157. The request of recent Presidents of the line item veto is a chalenge to which of the folowing
principles?

a. Separation of Powers
b. Senatorial Courtesy c. Eminent Domain
d. Executive Privilege
e. Congressional Oversight

A

158. Which of the following is a result of the Electoral College system?

a. The winner of the presidency often lacks a majority of the popular vote.
b. Candidates focus on one-party states in which they can win most of the electoral votes.
c. The House of Representatives frequently chooses the President from the top three candidates.
d. Candidates focus on large swing state.
e. Campaign spending increases because candidates emphasize television advertising.

D

159. In which of the following did Congress move to regain powers previously lost to the executive branch?

a. Budget and Impoundment Control Act
b. Gramm-Rudman-Hollings Act
c. Presidential Disability Act
d. Gulf of Tonkin Resolution
e. Persian Gulf War Resolutions

A

160. The largest source of federal revenue is the

a. Capital gains tax.
b. Social security tax.
c. Property tax.
d. Income tax.
e. Sales tax.

D

161. Senate confirmation is required for which of the following presidential appointments? I. Secretary of State

II. White House Chief of Staff
III. Director of the Federal Bureau of Investigation
IV. Attorney General

a. I only
b. II and III only c. II and IV only
d.I, III, and IV only
e. I, II, III, and IV

E

162. Federal spending for which of the following is determined bylaws that lie outside the regular
budgetary process?

a. Military procurement
b. Regulatory agency funding
c. Government subsidized housing programs
d. Educational assistance programs such as student loans
e. Entitlement programs such as Social Security

D

163. Which of the following is responsible for the preparation of executive pending proposals submitted to Congress?

a. Treasury department
b. Coimcil of Economic Advisors
c. Federal Trade Commission
d. Department of Commerce
e. Office of Management and Budget

E

164. Which of the following is the best predictor of the Department of Education's annual budget?

a. The preferences of the chair of the Senate Finance Commerce Committee
b. The budget recommendations of the National Education Association
c. The rate of increase of teachers' salaries
d. The number of children entering kindergarten
e. The size of the previous year's budget

E

165. A fundamental source of power for the federal bureaucracy lies in its

a. Role in moving legislation out of subcommittees.
b. Role in mediating interstate conflicts.
c. Ability to convince congress to fimd most projects it supports.
d. Ability to mobilize public opinion in support of legislative initiatives.
e. Ability to set specific guidelines after receiving a general mandate from Congress.

E

166. Congress has exerted the greatest influence on the operation of a federal agency by doing which of the following?

a. Requiring the agency to participate in interagency task forces.
b. Dismissing an agency head who disagrees with congressional priorities
c. Reviewing the annual budget appropriations for the agency
d. Passing sunset legislation that terminates programs after a certain period
e. Asking the Supreme Court for advisory opinions on agency regulations

C

167. One of the formal tools used by Congress for oversight of the bureaucracy is

a. The line item veto.
b. Authorization of spending.
c. Impoundment bills.
d. Private bills.
e. Senatorial courtesy.

B

168. When a lower court decision is appealed to the Supreme Court, which of the following is MOST
likely to occur?

a. The Supreme Court wil reconsider the case, and overturn the lower court decision.
b. The Supreme Court will reprimand the lower court judge for improperly deciding the case.
c. The plaintiffs or defendants wil file motions for a change of venue.
d. The case will be retried at the lower court level.
e. The Supreme Court will not hear the appeal.

E

Which of the following is true of amicus curiae briefs?

a. They are used by interest groups to lobby courts.
b. They are used exclusively by liberal interest groups.
c. They are used exclusively by conservative interest groups.
d. They are now unconstitutional.
e. They are the means by which a litigant seeks Supreme Court review of a lower court decision.

A

170. A major reason why the majority of Supreme Court justices have had political experience prior to
appointment to the Court is that

a. Justices are expected to act like politicians in their decision-making.
b. Presidents seek to place individuals on the Court whose policy views are similar to their own.
c. The Senate wil refuse to confirm any nominee to the Court who is not familiar with the political process.
d. Appointment to the Supreme Court is a reward for political party loyalty.
e. The Court is expected to defer to the political branches in making its decisions.

B

171. The Supreme Court ruled the legislative veto unconstitutional on the grounds that such vetoes

a. Were the province of the courts alone.
b. Violated ihe principle of separation of powers.
c. Would give the executive branch too much power.
d. Would give too much authority to nonelected officials.
e. Were an unwarranted infringement on the rights of state governments.

B

172. The Supreme Court established the incorporation doctrine when the Court

a. Interpreted the Fourteenth Amendment as extending the most of the requirements of the Bil of Rights to the states as well as the federal government.
b. Interpreted the Ninth Amendment as requiring national health and worker safety standards to protect the individual's implied right of personal safety.
c. Stripped the armed forces of their discretionary powers regarding military service for gay men, lesbians, and married people.
d. Strengthened local police forces by granting them the power to investigate and prosecute federal offenses.
e. Granted the federal government the power to declare acts of Congress unconstitutional.

A

173. The doctrine of original intent holds that

a. Supreme Court justices must emphasize independent and original thinking in considering constitutional matters.
b. The meaning of the Constitution depends on the intention of the framers.
c. Cases selected for review by the Supreme Court must address an original and new concern not previously addressed by the Court.
d. Supreme Court justices should avoid bias by documenting their original impressions of a case.
e. The Supreme Court should review al treaties that alter previously established foreign policy.

B

174. All of the following serve as checks on the power of the federal courts EXCEPT

a. Federal judges can be impeached.
b. The voters can oust federal judges in national elections.
c. Congress can pass laws clarifying "legislative intent."
d. Presidents, governors, and local executives can refrain from enforcing court rulings.
e. Congress and the state legislatures can amend the Constitution.

B

175. Which of the following best defines "judicial activism"?

a. The demands on judges to hear large numbers of cases.
b. The efforts of judges to lobby Congress for funds.
c. The attempts by judges to influence election outcomes.
d. The unwillingness of judges to remove themselves from cases in which they have a personal interest.
e. The tendency of judges to interpret the Constitution according to their own views.

E

176. Which of the following best describes the relationship between the Supreme Court and public
opinion?

a. The Court assesses public opinion on a controversial issue and then tries to follow it.
b. Court prestige is so high that its decisions become public opinions.
c. The existence of a public consensus on an issue limits the extent to which the Court will render decisions contrary to that consensus.
d. Public opinion has no bearing on the effective implementation of the Court's decisions.
e. There is no relationship between public opinion and the Court's decisions.

C

177. Supreme Court justices were given tenure subject to good behavior by the framers of the Constitution in order to ensure that

a. Justices are free from direct political pressures.
b. Justices remain accountable to the public.
c. Justices are encouraged to make politically popular decisions.
d. Cooperation between the judicial and legislative branches is assured.
e. Presidents are encouraged to seek younger nominees for the Supreme Court.

A

178. The most important source of the Supreme Court's caseload is

a. Its original jurisdiction.
b. Its appellate jurisdiction.
c. Instruction from the solicitor general.
d. The special master's certification of cases for review.
e. Congress' certification of cases for review.

B

179. Which of the following statements accurately describes the selection of the caseload for the United States Supreme Court?

a. The United States Constitution spells out all of the categories of cases that the Supreme Court must hear.
b. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court has the authority to select the cases that the Court will hear.
c. The Solicitor General in the Department of Justice determines the Supreme Court's agenda.
d. The Supreme Court is free to choose the cases it hears with only a few limitations.
e. The Attorney General screens cases for consideration by the Court

D

180. The act of following the principle of precedent or looking at prior Court decisions when settling similar cases,

a. Stare Decisis,
b. Litmus Test,
c. Standing,
d. Class-action suit,
e. Political Question.

A

181. A short, unsigned decision of the Court.

a. Litmus Test,
b. Class-action suit,
c. Per Curiam, d. Standing,
e. Political Question.

C

182. In 1954, the Court ruled that separate but equal was inherently unequal. Because this decision affected not only Linda Brown but all students in the same situation it is called:

a. Litmus Test,
b. Class-action suit,
c. Per Curiam,
d. Standing,
e. Political Question.

B

183. About 50% of the petitions for a Cert are from poor people and have their $300 fee waived. This is called?

a. Litmus Test,
b. In Forma Pauperis,
c. Political Question,
d. Judicial Review,
e. Political Question.

B

184. Before someone can petition the court, they must prove they have been harmed by a law or practice that is to be challenged. This is called:

a. Litmus Test,
b. Class-action suit,
c. Per Curiam,
d. Standing.

D

185. The position of a Court nominee on Abortion has become a make or break issue for many Senators, This describes:

a. Litmus Test,
b. Class-action suit,
c. Per Curiam,
d. Standing,
e. Political Question.

A

186. Deciding court cases strictly on the basis of the language of laws or the Constitution is called?

a. Judicial Activism,
b. Judicial Opinion,
c. Judicial Ruling,
d. Judicial Restraint,
e. Political Question.

D

187. The Constitution prohibits citizens from suing states without first getting the state governments'
permission. This is called:

a. Per Curiam,
b. Standing ,
c. Sovereign Immumty,
d. Litmus Test,
e. Political Questions.

C

188. An issue that the Supreme Court would allow the executive and legislative branches decide:

a. Litmus Test,
b. Class-action suit,
c. Per Curiam,
d. Standing,
e. Political Question.

E

189. This is how cases get to the Supreme Court:

a. Per Curiam,
b. Standing ,
c. Sovereign Immumty,
d. Judicial Review,
e. Rule of Four.

E

190. All of these are checks on Judicial Power of the Federal Court system EXCEPT:

a. need for Senate confirmation,
b. term of office,
c. nomination by the President,
d. Congresses ability to set their agenda,
e. Congresses power of appropriations.

B

191. The Supreme Court's power of judicial review permits the Court to overrule all of the following EXCEPT

a. lower-court decisions
b. state legislation
c. acts of Congress d. the Bill of Rights e. executive orders

...

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The best-known power of the Supreme Court is judicial review, or the ability of the Court to declare a Legislative or Executive act in violation of the Constitution, is not found within the text of the Constitution itself. The Court established this doctrine in the case of Marbury v.